(Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here [2010-2020]

A forum for all topics related to constructed languages
Wanderer
cuneiform
cuneiform
Posts: 135
Joined: 12 Aug 2010 14:32

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Wanderer »

I suppose it depends on what type of labialisation you talk about. If labialisation just refers to rounding your lips while saying the consonant, I doubt you can hear the difference, because it wouldn't be there. However, oftentimes labialisation is actually labiovelarization. In that case, there is indeed a difference between [ɥ] and [jʷ].

Since [ʷ] is mostly used for any type of labialization, it is slightly ambiguous, I think. Wikipedia lists at least 7 types of labialization, not including labiovelarization (it says labialized consonants often also have simultaneous velarization though).
Nortaneous
greek
greek
Posts: 675
Joined: 14 Aug 2010 13:28

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Nortaneous »

I guess you could also say that there's a slight difference in how far back they are. Since [y] is generally not as fronted as , maybe [ɥ] wouldn't be as fronted as [j]. But it could go either way; IPA isn't specific enough for any conclusions to be drawn here.
User avatar
Avjunza
sinic
sinic
Posts: 242
Joined: 15 Aug 2010 08:18
Location: Aotearoa

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Avjunza »

Would it make sense if, in an Ergative language, the reflexive is marked by simply putting the subject in the Ergative case and not having an object?

E.g:
"3s.ERG kill.PAST" for "He killed himself."
"1s.ERG wash.HABI" for "I wash myself (habitual)"


Also, does anyone have some links to a good site on polysynthetic natlangs?
Image
Przemysław
hieroglyphic
hieroglyphic
Posts: 48
Joined: 26 Sep 2010 00:26

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Przemysław »

Avjunza wrote:Would it make sense if, in an Ergative language, the reflexive is marked by simply putting the subject in the Ergative case and not having an object?
It's an invented language, so everything might make sense, but for me your examples, at first glance, would mean ‛He killed it’ and ‛I wash it usually’, respectively.

A few of possible solutions (I'm omitting TAM and any argument marking on verbs):

1) Absolutive + intransitive:

John.ERG Mary.ABS kill.TR ‛John Killed Mary’
but
John.ABS kill.INTR ‛John killed himself’

2) Reflexive verbal affix:

John.ABS kill.REFL

3) (Transitive with) both arguments explicit:
a) with a personal pronoun:

he.ERG John.ABS kill(.TR)
or
John.ERG he.ABS kill(.TR)

b) with a reflexive pronoun or a noun which functions as such:

John.ERG self(.ABS) kill
User avatar
Micamo
MVP
MVP
Posts: 5671
Joined: 05 Sep 2010 19:48
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Micamo »

How can I romanize /ɥ/ if my conlang also has /j w i y/?
My pronouns are <xe> [ziː] / <xym> [zɪm] / <xys> [zɪz]

My shitty twitter
User avatar
MrKrov
banned
Posts: 1929
Joined: 12 Aug 2010 02:47
Location: /ai/ > /a:/
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by MrKrov »

How're you romanizing /j w i y/?
Thakowsaizmu
runic
runic
Posts: 2518
Joined: 13 Aug 2010 18:57

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Thakowsaizmu »

Micamo wrote:How can I romanize /ɥ/ if my conlang also has /j w i y/?
ï, ÿ, ü, ŷ, ŵ, û, ui, wy, iu, yw
User avatar
Micamo
MVP
MVP
Posts: 5671
Joined: 05 Sep 2010 19:48
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Micamo »

Thakowsaizmu wrote:
Micamo wrote:How can I romanize /ɥ/ if my conlang also has /j w i y/?
ï, ÿ, ü, ŷ, ŵ, û, ui, wy, iu, yw
I'm going with <ui>, thanks!
My pronouns are <xe> [ziː] / <xym> [zɪm] / <xys> [zɪz]

My shitty twitter
Nortaneous
greek
greek
Posts: 675
Joined: 14 Aug 2010 13:28

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Nortaneous »

Aww. I've always liked <ẅ>.
User avatar
Micamo
MVP
MVP
Posts: 5671
Joined: 05 Sep 2010 19:48
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Micamo »

It's not on my keyboard: I prefer to use polygraphs wherever possible so I don't have to mess around with switching keyboard layouts when I wanna type my conlang.
My pronouns are <xe> [ziː] / <xym> [zɪm] / <xys> [zɪz]

My shitty twitter
User avatar
jseamus
greek
greek
Posts: 614
Joined: 15 Aug 2010 23:07
Location: Phoenix, AZ

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by jseamus »

What are all possible characters to transcribe /ʔ/ (the glottal stop)?

I am leaning toward using <Ɂ ɂ>, but <ɂ> messes with formatting, particularly tabs. Is there any other capital/lowercase pair that i can use to represent it?
This is the world.
User avatar
Micamo
MVP
MVP
Posts: 5671
Joined: 05 Sep 2010 19:48
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Micamo »

jseamus wrote:What are all possible characters to transcribe /ʔ/ (the glottal stop)?

I am leaning toward using <Ɂ ɂ>, but <ɂ> messes with formatting, particularly tabs. Is there any other capital/lowercase pair that i can use to represent it?
Other than what you describe I don't think there is anything you can use if you absolutely must have capital/lowercase versions. However if you don't mind unicode or it looking nothing like the IPA character itself you can always use one of the spare letters from Cryllic or something.
My pronouns are <xe> [ziː] / <xym> [zɪm] / <xys> [zɪz]

My shitty twitter
Nortaneous
greek
greek
Posts: 675
Joined: 14 Aug 2010 13:28

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Nortaneous »

jseamus wrote:What are all possible characters to transcribe /ʔ/ (the glottal stop)?

I am leaning toward using <Ɂ ɂ>, but <ɂ> messes with formatting, particularly tabs. Is there any other capital/lowercase pair that i can use to represent it?
Maltese uses <Q q>. Piraha uses <X x>. You could probably get away with using <C c>. I think someone used <Ḥ ḥ> in a conlang once, but I've always thought it looked ugly; if you want to use some form of <h>, I'd say you should use <Ḩ ḩ>, <Ħ ħ>, or <Ⱨ ⱨ>.
User avatar
jseamus
greek
greek
Posts: 614
Joined: 15 Aug 2010 23:07
Location: Phoenix, AZ

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by jseamus »

Nortaneous wrote:Maltese uses <Q q>. Piraha uses <X x>. You could probably get away with using <C c>. I think someone used <Ḥ ḥ> in a conlang once, but I've always thought it looked ugly; if you want to use some form of <h>, I'd say you should use <Ḩ ḩ>, <Ħ ħ>, or <Ⱨ ⱨ>.
Thanks for the input. I was hoping to avoid using a letter that already had a well established (different) usage. What do y'all think about using <ʔ ˀ> as a cap/small pair?

I might just end up resigning myself to <'>.
This is the world.
Bristel
sinic
sinic
Posts: 359
Joined: 14 Aug 2010 19:50

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Bristel »

jseamus wrote:
Nortaneous wrote:Maltese uses <Q q>. Piraha uses <X x>. You could probably get away with using <C c>. I think someone used <Ḥ ḥ> in a conlang once, but I've always thought it looked ugly; if you want to use some form of <h>, I'd say you should use <Ḩ ḩ>, <Ħ ħ>, or <Ⱨ ⱨ>.
Thanks for the input. I was hoping to avoid using a letter that already had a well established (different) usage. What do y'all think about using <ʔ ˀ> as a cap/small pair?

I might just end up resigning myself to <'>.
I like <ʔ ˀ> even though it looks similar to <?>.
[bɹ̠ˤʷɪs.təɫ]
Nōn quālibet inīqua cupiditāte illectus hōc agō.
[tiː.mɔ.tʉɥs god.lɐf hɑwk]
User avatar
MrKrov
banned
Posts: 1929
Joined: 12 Aug 2010 02:47
Location: /ai/ > /a:/
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by MrKrov »

In a four phoneme vowel system of /i e o a/, in which direction is it more likely for these diphthongs/vowel clusters to monophthongize into long vowels: the first vowel to the second or vice-versa? I suppose it's relevant to specify a CV-exclusive syllable structure.
io > ?, ia > ?, ea > ?, oi > ?, oe > ?
Also some mildly unconventional things that /j/ can become?
User avatar
Micamo
MVP
MVP
Posts: 5671
Joined: 05 Sep 2010 19:48
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Micamo »

MrKrov wrote:In a four phoneme vowel system of /i e o a/, in which direction is it more likely for these diphthongs/vowel clusters to monophthongize into long vowels: the first vowel to the second or vice-versa? I suppose it's relevant to specify a CV-exclusive syllable structure.
io > ?, ia > ?, ea > ?, oi > ?, oe > ?
Also some mildly unconventional things that /j/ can become?
I'd say first to the second, just feels more natural.

I don't know the rest of your phonology or diachronic plans, but how about /ʝ/ before front vowels and /ħ/ before back ones?
My pronouns are <xe> [ziː] / <xym> [zɪm] / <xys> [zɪz]

My shitty twitter
User avatar
Sankon
sinic
sinic
Posts: 357
Joined: 12 Aug 2010 02:06
Location: At the computer

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Sankon »

MrKrov wrote:Also some mildly unconventional things that /j/ can become?
j -> ʝ -> ɣ -> g
j -> dʒ -> ɟ
roninbodhisattva
MVP
MVP
Posts: 1686
Joined: 15 Aug 2010 20:03
Location: California
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by roninbodhisattva »

Sankon wrote:
MrKrov wrote:Also some mildly unconventional things that /j/ can become?
j -> ʝ -> ɣ -> g
j -> dʒ -> ɟ
Alternatively!

j > lʲ > ðʲ (where ð is some kind of dental non-lateral approximant) > ð (where ð is a real fricative)
User avatar
MrKrov
banned
Posts: 1929
Joined: 12 Aug 2010 02:47
Location: /ai/ > /a:/
Contact:

Re: Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by MrKrov »

I think roninbodhisattva’s alternative of ð will work best since it kinda parallells what I’m doing with /w/. 'k, thanks.
Locked