Salmoneus wrote: ↑11 Jan 2021 03:24
All of this is correct. The -ang- element (forgive my laziness with my own orthography!) is indeed descended from a PGmc verb root.
Oh, no worries at all, of course!
Looking at Wiktionary, at least, *angwijaną
seems to me like a possible candidate for the ancestor of -ą́ng-
, at least based on superficial resemblance. One potential issue with this, I feel, is the apparent lack of i-umlaut when compared to the Old/Middle Dutch and Old Norse reflexes listed, although I'm really not familiar enough with this language or its history to know, among other things, whether or not umlaut should be expected here.
Anyway, my question is whether or not I'm on the right track with *angwijaną