(Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

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Dormouse559
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Dormouse559 »

Pabappa wrote: 17 Apr 2020 00:39Coleus is also the name of a flower .... comes from the same root that means vagina but it is being used in its more academic sense of "sheath".
Oh, that reminds me … non-academically, coleus means "testicle" and is the etymon of many Romance words for the same (couille, cojón, coglione, etc.) So depending on whether the word refers to a sheath or a sack, you get all kinds of genitalia [:P]
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by yangfiretiger121 »

Currently, Lhiáide has <v> ([vˠ, vʲ]), which lenites into <vh> ([ʋˠ, ʋʲ]), from a merger of Gaelic's <bh> and <mh> and [ʋ̥ˠ, ʋ̥ʲ] for <fh>, which is silent in Gaelic. However, I'm going to split <v> back into its Gaelic counterparts and differentiate them. What are some believable phones for each <bh, fh, mh>? I'm thinking about [vˠ, vʲ] for <bh>, fricative [ʍ] for <fh>, and [ʋˠ, ʋʲ] for <mh>.
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Post by Omzinesý »

In Tulemo, object follows the verb and genitive modifier follows its head noun.
Should an incorporated object and a modifying root in a compound still precede their heads?
My meta-thread: viewtopic.php?f=6&t=5760
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Davush »

I have a stress related question. In this language, vowel length and gemination are non-phonemic, but play a prominent role due to allophony.

Stress is non-phonemic, but somewhat idiosyncratic. Initial-vowels are never stressed which can often lead to word-final stress:
azal > azál
atraf > atráf


Word final /h/ also attracts stress:
makah > makáh

Otherwise stress is fixed on the penultimate, which causes vowel-lengthening in an open syllable:

makáta > makáːta

However, a CvCvC# sequence becomes CvCCvC unless the medial consonant is a voiced stop (which cause lengthening as usual):

kátan > káttan
kádan > kādan


Or, in other words, a closed final syllables requires the previous syllable to also be closed, unless the final syllable begins with a voiced stop.

I would like to know whether this system as a whole seems plausible, and how I might explain why an underlying word such as <kátan> becomes /káttan/ and not /káːtan/. It seems like words ending in CVCVC are not permitted, but could there be any diachronic/synchronic reason to justify this? Thank you! [:D]
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Post by Salmoneus »

Interesting!

There's probably several ways to do this. I'm going to put forward three approaches: a direct metrical approach, an inverted approach, and a semi-inverted stress-based approach.

--------------------

Metrical

Stage One: A heavy syllable preferentially forms its own foot. Feet are counted from the right.

Thus you have patterns like:
| mata |
| ma | sak |
| ma | pata |
| mapa | sak |

Note that the second and third words here begin with monomoraic feet.

Stage Two: monomoraic feet are banned. To avoid this ban, monomoraic feet gain codas through gemination.

Thus:

| mata |
| mas | sak |
| map | pata |
| mapa | sak |

Each foot at this point has its own stress. However, we can define the primary stress as the rightmost stress that is not in a final syllable.


Stage Three:
feet become weight-insensitive. Now every two syllables, defined from the right, forms a foot. Stress must sometimes move accordingly.

So:

| mata |
| massak |
| map | pata |
| ma | pasak |

Stage Four: all full feet must have three morae! This means that stressed open vowels must lengthen. There's no point trying this in monomoraic feet, as it wouldn't accomplish the goal anyway, so these remain short. Meanwhile, gemination is lost in the coda of an unstressed syllable.

Thus:

| ma:ta |
| massak |
| ma | pa:ta |
| ma | pasak |

Leaving us a question: why is the outcome different for voiced stops? Easy! "Voiced" stops in the proto-language are actually prenasalised. Geminate prenasals become homorganic clusters (i.e. /dd/ is [nd]). Coda nasals are then lost before other consonants, lengthening the preceding vowel (as has happened in some Swiss German, iirc). Prenasalised stops then simply lose prenasalisation. Et voila!

Now, yes, I know, I've taken the liberty of giving you an interesting outcome in three-syllable words with heavy finals, that you didn't specify. It seemed fun. You can avoid this by fiddling with the stress and weight rules earlier on. Or, you can just say "analogy!" at the end here...

________________________________________________________


Inverted

What do I mean by inverted? Well, the instinctive assumption, given your rules, is that the shape of the final syllable is given, and we have to find a way to create your difference in the root as a result. But what if the shape of the final syllable is actually the effect, not the cause, of an existing difference in the root?

Stage One: primary stress can be on either of the last two syllables. Secondary stress is every two syllables back.

| mata |
| ma | ta |
| ma | saka |
| mapa| ta |
| mapa | saka |
| ki | mapa |ta |
| ki | mapa | saka |

Stage Two: to regularise stress, final stressed syllables become long (bimoraic). Now primary stress can be said to be on the penultimate mora of all words.

| mata |
| ma | taa |
| ma | saka |
| mapa| taa |
| mapa | saka |
| ki | mapa |taa |
| ki | mapa | saka |


Stage Three: final unstressed vowels drop (but final double vowels don't shorten). This makes stress irregular again. So, stress on final double vowels moves to second mora. And secondary stress shifts along one syllable to match!

| ma | ta |
| mata | a |
| ma | sak |
| ma | pata | a |
| mapa | sak |
| kima | pata | a |
| ki | mapa | sak |

Stage Four: massive loss of unstressed vowels!

| m | ta
| mat | a |
| m | sak |
| m | pat | a |
| map | sak |
| kim | pat | a |
| k | map | sak |

Stage Five: resetting of syllable boundaries. New stress rule: penultimate syllable (not counting sesquisyllabic onset syllables!)

| m-ta
| mata |
| m-sak |
| m-pata |
| mapsak |
| kim | pata |
| k-mapsak |

Stage Six: codas drop in unstressed syllables. Codas in stressed syllables assimilate to following consonant, forming geminates. Sonorant sesquisyllables vocalise forming new syllables.

| u | ta
| mata |
| u | sak |
| u | pata |
| massak |
| ki | pata |
| massak |

Stage Seven: stressed open vowels lengthen


uta
ma:ta
usak
upa:ta
massak
kipa:ta
massak


And then, as in the metrical explanation, you simply say that /dd/ > /nd/ (because /d/ is phonetically prenasalised) > /:d/.

This approach gives you a more radical transformation from the proto-language. But it has the advantage of probably simpler soundchanges (changes based on foot shape do exist in the wild, but they're obviously less usual than changes based on plain stress!), and it produces your rule about unstressed vowel-initial syllables as a natural byproduct without special pleading.

That's actually what made me think of this. In normal linguistics, your rule is meant to be impossible: stress is never dependent on the nature of the onset of a syllable, only its coda. However, there are a couple of languages that violate this rule, because, it's believed, of this sort of diachronic process (where the vowel-initial syllable is the result of the stress rules, not the cause).


----------------------------

Semi-inversion and Stress

So, here again I'm relying on the idea that these shapes are ultimately the result, not the cause, of the rules. But this time the transformations are less stark, and more is done by the rules after the shape has already been established.

To do this, we need to assume a disliked vowel, @. And we need a new mechanism for gemination...

Stage One: primary stress is always final (in both foot and word). Secondary stress always follows two syllables behind.

| sak@ |
| mata |
| ma | sak@ |
| ma | tak@ |
| ma | zak@ |
| ma | dak@ |
| ma | pata |

Stage Two: Because everyone dislikes /@/, it drops in final position (and elsewhere merges with /a/). If this deletes a primary stress, primary stress instead moves to the preceding secondary stress.

| sak |
| mata |
| ma | sak |
| ma | tak |
| ma | zak |
| ma | dak |
| ma | pata |

Stage Three: open vowels with primary stress lengthen

| sak |
| mata: |
| ma: | sak |
| ma: | tak |
| ma: | zak |
| ma: | dak |
| ma | pata: |

Stage Four: a long vowel lengthens a following continuant and itself shortens. That just leaves stops - voiced and voiceless. Now, voiceless stops happen to be pre-aspirated! So, the long vowel lengthens that preaspiration into an /h/.

Thus:

| sak |
| mata: |
| mas | sak |
| mah | tak |
| maz | zak |
| ma: | dak |
| ma | pata: |

Stage Five: stress shifts to the penultimate syllable of all words. Unstressed long vowels shorten.

| sak |
| mata |
| mas | sak |
| mah | tak |
| maz | zak |
| ma: | dak |
| ma | pata |

Stage Six: /hC/ clusters simplify into geminates. Short stressed vowels in open syllables lengthen.

| sak |
| ma:ta |
| mas sak |
| mat tak |
| maz zak |
| ma: dak |
| mapa:ta |


-------------------------



There you go, three different ways! None of them, to be honest, are particularly likely chains of events, but I think they're all conceivable plausible, and each elegant to some extent in its own way...
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Davush »

Salmoneus wrote: 09 May 2020 01:54 Interesting!

[...]

There you go, three different ways! None of them, to be honest, are particularly likely chains of events, but I think they're all conceivable plausible, and each elegant to some extent in its own way...
Thank you, Salmoneus! All three of those solutions are indeed elegant in their own way, although I particularly like the metrical-based solution. It seems requiring feet to be trimoraic is pretty unusual? The main example I have come across is Gilbertese.

More generally, I was also wondering how unusual it would be for a language to simply disallow/disprefer certain word shapes? So for example, CvCvC might be disallowed, perhaps due to an overall larger number of CvCCvC words in the proto-language which puts pressure on CvCvC to also become CvCCvC? The main motivation I had for a system like this was to add some 'rhythmicality' to a pretty 'plain' phonology, where length/gemination are quite prominent but nonetheless entirely predictable. Of course, as you mention, the chain of events which gives rise to that type of system is probably quite unlikely...Stress systems are fascinating, but also a rabbit-hole...!
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Salmoneus »

Davush wrote: 09 May 2020 14:13
Salmoneus wrote: 09 May 2020 01:54 Interesting!

[...]

There you go, three different ways! None of them, to be honest, are particularly likely chains of events, but I think they're all conceivable plausible, and each elegant to some extent in its own way...
Thank you, Salmoneus! All three of those solutions are indeed elegant in their own way, although I particularly like the metrical-based solution. It seems requiring feet to be trimoraic is pretty unusual? The main example I have come across is Gilbertese.
It's probably unusual, yes, though I don't know. One example is English. Oh, sure, it was never a 'rule' in the absolute sense. But if you assume that it's an attempted rule, it does explain multiple things about the transition to Middle English. Let's take some words:

| krist | > | kri:st |. This foot starts with only two morae, so the vowel has to be lengthened.
| rat | > | rat |. Since the foot is monomoraic, lengthening the vowel wouldn't achieve the target, so we don't bother and leave it short.
| di | vine | > |di | vi:ne |. The first foot is too short to do anything with, but the second can have its stressed vowel lengthened to make it trimoraic.

But sometimes the foot is too long!

| go:dspel | > | godspel |. Here, having a long vowel and two codas makes for too many morae, so the vowel has to be shortened (we can assume the coda of an unstressed syllable in a foot doesn't count anyway).

And let's put some of the first set of words into derived/inflected forms:

| kri:stsmase| > | kristsmase|.
| di | vi:niti | > |di | viniti |

Now, these processes aren't perfect. The lengthening doesn't always effect /u/ and /i/ (hence 'nut', not 'noot'). And the shortening before clusters spread from 'shorten before three consonants (i.e. two codas)' and 'shorten before two consonants when there's a following vowel', compared to 'lengthen before single consonants when there's one more syllable' to a plain 'shorten before any two consonants other than certain lengthening-inducing pairs' by analogy. And there's also been extensive levelling within paradigms, so that we get 'whale' and 'climber' with long vowels throughout, and 'path' with a short vowel throughout (though words like staff/staves show the original alternation).

And traditionally, we describe all this as a series of unrelated, even contradictory, arbitrary soundchanges: homorganic lengthening, trisyllabic laxing, precluster shortening, and open syllable lengthening. But all four sound changes can basically be summed up, collectively, as: "change vowel length to make your feet have three morae if possible".

More generally, I was also wondering how unusual it would be for a language to simply disallow/disprefer certain word shapes? So for example, CvCvC might be disallowed, perhaps due to an overall larger number of CvCCvC words in the proto-language which puts pressure on CvCvC to also become CvCCvC?
Analogy can certainly be a powerful force, yes.
The main motivation I had for a system like this was to add some 'rhythmicality' to a pretty 'plain' phonology, where length/gemination are quite prominent but nonetheless entirely predictable. Of course, as you mention, the chain of events which gives rise to that type of system is probably quite unlikely...Stress systems are fascinating, but also a rabbit-hole...!
The difficulty in your system is that it's sort of backward: you'd expect to have the geminate syllables before light syllables, but you have them before other heavy syllables, which makes it much harder to explain. Similarly, having gemination of voiceless stops, voiceless fricatives, voiced fricatives and sonorants, but pre-consonant lengthening from voiced stops, is even weirder, making it harder to explain.

But these things aren't necessarily problems!

In fact, this sort of thing demonstrates the virtues of diachronic conlanging, in my opinion. You start out with a random quirk, you ask how it could have gotten like that, and when you work out an answer, you get ideas about what ELSE that process might have affected!
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Sights »

Hello,

I've been tinkering around with an inventory I've had for ages and I wanted to add some interesting allophony rules to it. The conlang has both /ɸ/ and /θ/ and I thought it'd make sense if they became voiced intervocalically, i.e., be realized respectively as [β] and [ð]. I quite like this idea, but so far I've mostly found examples of these sounds being allophones of stops ( /b/, /d/), not of their voiceless fricative counterparts. Since the phoneme inventory is already somewhat unusual, I wanted the allophones to be a bit more naturalistic and I don't know how plausible this is. Here's the inventory and some other rules I thought of, in case it helps:

/a e i o u/
/m n ɲ/
/p t ʔ/
/ph th/
/ɸ θ s h/
/ɾ/

/ph/ and /th/ are realized respectively as [pɸ] and [tθ] in stressed syllables.
/h/ is realized intervocalically as [ɦ], and as [ç] before /i/.
If a word has two adjacent syllables with /ʔ/, the vowel or diphthong following the second /ʔ/ becomes creaky-voiced.
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Post by Pabappa »

Sights wrote: 22 May 2020 00:05 The conlang has both /ɸ/ and /θ/ and I thought it'd make sense if they became voiced intervocalically, i.e., be realized respectively as [β] and [ð].
Yes, those allophones work perfectly well. Its probably true that lenition is more common than voicing but what you want has been attested or come pretty close to in Japanese (where /ɸ/ > /w/ intervocalically, and maybe went through [β] on the way), and i think in English with θ~ð, part of a variation that also affected s~z and f~v. Im not entirely sure of the Old English examples because spelling doesnt always reflect etymology, but Im sure it can be found somewhere else even so.
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Post by Sights »

Thanks for the quick reply. I guess I just didn't know what would be weirder, for the conlang to have [β] and [ð], but not /b/ and /d/, or for it to have all four and contrast them.
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Post by Salmoneus »

None of this is weird at all.

Intervocalic voicing of fricatives is probably one of the most common allophonic rules (/sound changes) in the world.

English is indeed an example - our fricatives were all voiceless, became intervocalically voiced (staff vs staves), and now the phonemic distinction is entirely due to the loss of final and unstressed vowels (bath vs bathe), reduction of geminates (as these didn't voice - this is why intervocalic 's' is usually /z/ but 'ss' and 'sc' and the like are still /s/), paradigm levelling (staves > 'stave'), occasional sporadic changes, borrowings from other languages without this rule ('voice'), and borrowings from dialects (i.e. Zomerzet) in which voicing also took place in initial position ('vixen' as feminine form of 'fox', replacing standard 'fixen').


In terms of typology: it's not weird at all to have voiced fricative allophones but no /b/ and /d/. It's probably slightly more common to have and [d] as well, with voicing also applying to stops; but fricatives are I believe more prone to lenition in general, as they're already seen as 'weaker' sounds.

On the other hand, it's maybe even less odd to contrast /d/ and /D/ and so on. English, after all, does this, having all four as phonemes rather than just allophones (other than, obviously, having labiodental /v/ instead of labial /B/). I say 'maybe', though, because having lots of fricatives is very common in Europe, but much less so elsewhere, and of course having /T/ at all is already unusual.

On which note: having a phonemic voicing contrast in fricatives is rare outside Europe. But lacking the phonemic contrast encourages allophonic variation, and I'm sure that a very large percentage of the world's languages have exactly the intervocalic voicing rule you set out.


In general, your inventory seems very reasonable, although I'm sure you're aware that it would be one of the smallest inventories of any language on Earth.
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Post by Esneirra973 »

What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
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Post by shimobaatar »

gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
I can't think of any examples of /ɨ/ <v> off the top of my head, but I believe Cherokee /ə̃/ is romanized as <v>.

You could use <y> if you're not already using it.
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Post by Khemehekis »

gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
Have you considered using Y for /i/ and using I for /ɨ/?
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Post by sangi39 »

gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
Guarani uses <y> and <>, so that's an option.

A few languages write /ɨ/ as <ï>, but that doesn't exactly mesh well with the tilde.

Some languages use <ë> for the central /ə/. It's not perfect, but if you steal that, it gives you the option for using <> for the nasal counterpart.
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by cedh »

gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
You could also use an ogonek for nasalization, and <ı> for /ɨ/. This looks great if it works -- but unfortunately, many typefaces do not really support <ı̨>, i.e. a dotless ı with a combining ogonek:
i ı u e o a
į ı̨ ų ą
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Salmoneus »

gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
There's always:
/i iu u e o a/
/imh iumh omh amh/

Or just:
/i e u ea o a/
/in en un an/
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Post by Esneirra973 »

cedh wrote: 24 May 2020 00:11
gokupwned5 wrote: 23 May 2020 23:50 What orthography could I use for this vowel system? I was thinking of using tildes to indicate nasalization, but I am not sure how I could write /ɨ/ and /ɨ̃/. I was thinking of using <v> and <ṽ> respectively, but I don't think any language uses those letters for those sounds.

/i ɨ u e o a/
/ĩ ɨ̃ ũ ã/
You could also use an ogonek for nasalization, and <ı> for /ɨ/. This looks great if it works -- but unfortunately, many typefaces do not really support <ı̨>, i.e. a dotless ı with a combining ogonek:
i ı u e o a
į ı̨ ų ą
I think I'll go with this one, since I'm already using <y>. Thank you all!
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Frogalicious »

What is a good lexical source for an obviative marker? Yønsen has a proximate/obviate system but I don't know how to derive it in the protolang.
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Re: (Conlangs) Q&A Thread - Quick questions go here

Post by Khemehekis »

Frogalicious wrote: 24 May 2020 07:10 What is a good lexical source for an obviative marker? Yønsen has a proximate/obviate system but I don't know how to derive it in the protolang.
How about a word for "other"?



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